Friday, 3 August 2012

Manual testing Question -part 2


  1. Which of the following is not decided in the test-planning phase? (Testing artifacts)
    1. Schedules and deliverables
    2. Hardware and software
    3. Entry and exit criteria
    4. Types of test cases
  2. Compatibility testing for products involves all the following except  (Test Execution)
    1. Certified and supported client environments
    2. High and low level sanity testing
    3. Client and server side compatibility
    4. Functional and non-functional compatibility

    1.  
  1. Evaluating business importance and testing the core business cases in an application is called (Test Mgmt)
    1. Risk based testing
    2. High level sanity testing
    3. Low level sanity testing
    4. Regression testing
  2. Regression testing mainly helps in (Test Execution)
    1. Retesting fixed defects
    2. Checking for side-effects of fixes
    3. Checking the core gaps
    4. Ensuring high level sanity
  3. Load testing emphasizes on performance under load while stress testing emphasizes on (Performance testing)
    1. Breaking load
    2. Performance under stress
    3. Performance under load
    4. There is no such difference, both are same
  4. Which of the following is not a form of performance testing? (Performance testing)
    1. Spike testing
    2. Volume testing
    3. Transaction testing
    4. Endurance testing

  1. Which of the following is not a type of test under phases in testing life cycle? (Testing concepts)
    1. Integration test
    2. Load test
    3. User Acceptance test
    4. Beta test
  2. Test efficiency is always directly proportional to (Quality)
    1. Product Delivery
    2. Functional Coverage
    3. Product Reliability
    4. Product Cost
  3. Per economics of testing – optimum test is suggested because (Test Execution)
    1. Number of defects decrease along with extent of testing
    2. Number of defects increase along with extent of testing
    3. Cost of testing increases with the extent of testing
    4. Cost of testing increases with the number of defects
  4. In a V-model of software testing, UAT plans are prepared during the (Test Execution)
    1. Analysis phase
    2. HLD phase
    3. LLD phase
    4. System Testing phase
  5. Verification performed without any executable code is referred to as (Testing concepts)
    1. Review
    2. Static testing
    3. Validation
    4. Sanity testing
  6. If Quality Control and Quality Assurance are compared (Quality)
    1. Both are literally the same
    2. QA is a higher activity in the management Hierarchy
    3. QC ia a higher activity in the management Hierarchy
    4. QA is done by the client and QC si done by the software vendor
  7. The extent of automation for a given project is generally guided by (Automation)
    1. Scope for automation
    2. Tool support
    3. Business Functionality
    4. Vendor’s skills
  8. Test data planning essentially includes (Testing artifacts)
    1. Network
    2. Operational Model
    3. Boundry value analysis
    4. Test Procedure Planning
  9. Which of the following is not a client side statistics in load testing (Performance testing)
    1. Hits per second
    2. Throughput
    3. Cache hit ratio
    4. Transaction per second

  1. Feasibility study is more important before load testing (Performance testing)
    1. Web Applications
    2. Client-server applications
    3. Mainframe applications
    4. Citrix applications
  2. Which one of the following need not be part of the bug tracker? (Defect Mgmt)
    1. Bug identifier
    2. One line bug description
    3. Severity of the bug
    4. None of the above
  3. Which of the following approach needs to be taken if there are a large number of defects being found in the software? (Defect Mgmt)
1. Try continuing testing and logging the critical defects.
2. Immediately stop testing the product
3. Inform the lead/Manager providing proper documentation
4. Continue testing in the normal manner
    1. 1 and 3
    2. 3 and 4
    3. 2 only
    4. 3 only

  1. What if the application has functionality that wasn't in the requirements? (Test Mgmt)
    1. Ignore testing that functionality
    2. Continue to test the functionality and report the results
    3. Update the Project Manager with the details and the risk involved
    4. None of the above
  2. What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing a testing for world wide web sites (Test Execution)
    1. Interaction between html pages
    2. Performance on the client side
    3. Security aspects
    4. All of the above
  3. What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing? (Test Mgmt)
    1. Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
    2. Use automation tool for testing
    3. a and b
    4. None of the above
  4. The selection of test cases for regression testing (Testing artifacts)
    1. Requires knowledge on the bug fixes and how it affect the system
    2. Includes the area of frequent defects
    3. Includes the area which has undergone many/recent code changes
    4. All of the above
  5. What are the main attributes of test automation (Automation)
1. Time saving
2. Correctness
3. Less Manpower
4. More reliable

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1, 2 , 3 and 4
    4. None of the above

  1. Some of the common problems of test automation are (Automation)
    1. Changing requirements
    2. Lack of time
    3. Both a and b
    4. None of the above
  2. Some of the metrics which are collected in a testing project are (Quality)
1.      Productivity
2.      Test effectiveness
3.      Requirement stability
4.      Bug fix rate
    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1, 2 and 4
    4. 1 and 4
  1. Test Suit Manager  (Test Execution)
    1. A tool that specifies an order of actions that should be performed during a test session
    2. A software package that creates test transactions for testing application systems and programs
    3. A tool that allows testers to organize test scripts by function or other grouping
    4. None of the above
  2. Baseline means (Quality)
    1. A single software product that may or may not fully support a business function
    2. A quantitative measure of the current level of performance
    3. A test or analysis conducted after an application is moved into production
    4. None of the above
  3. A document describing any event during the testing process that requires investigation (Test execution)
    1. Test log
    2. Test Incident report
    3. Test Cycle
    4. Test Item
  4. The purpose of this event is to review the application user interface and other human factors of the application with the people who will be using the application. (Test execution)
    1. User Acceptance test
    2. Usability test
    3. Validation
    4. None of the above
  5. What is used to measure the characteristics of the documentation and code? (Quality)
    1. Process metrics
    2. Product metrics
    3. Software Quality metrics
    4. None of the above
  6. Use of an executable model to represent the behavior of an object is called (Testing concepts)
    1. Simulation
    2. Software item
    3. Software feature
    4. None of the above
  7. Benchmarking is (Quality)
    1. Comparing your company’s products services or processes against best practices or competitive practices to help define superior performance of a product service or support process.
    2. A quantitative measure of the current level of performance
    3. A test or analysis conducted after an application is moved into production
    4. None of the above
  8. Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail and verifies that data recovery is properly performed. The following should be checked for correctness (Test Execution)
      1. Re-initialization
2. Restart
3. Data Recovery
4. Check Point Mechanism
a.       1 and 2
b.      1, 2 and 3
c.       1, 2, 3 and 4
d.      2 and 4
  1. UAT is different from other testing types normally because of (Testing concepts)
    1. Data
    2. Cycles
    3. Defects
    4. None of the above
  2. Alpha testing is differentiated from Beta testing by  (Testing concepts)
    1. The location where the tests are conducted.
    2. The types of test conducted
    3. The people doing the testing
    4. The degree to which white box techniques are used


136.  What is the need for test planning (test planning process)
            a. to utilize a balance of testing techniques
            b. to understand testing process
            c. to collect metrics
            d. to perform ad hoc testing.

137. Which of the following is NOT a part of Test plan document? (test planning process)
            a. assumptions
            b. communication approach
            c. risk analysis
            d. status report

138.  Which part of Test plan will define “what will and will not be covered in the test”? (test planning process)
            a. test scope
            b. test objective
            c. both a & b
            d. none of the above

139.  Test objective is simply a testing (test planning process)
            a. direction
            b. vision
            c. mission
            d. goal

140.  Which out of the below is NOT a concern for testers to complete a test plan (test planning process)
            a. not enough training
            b. lack of test tools
            c. enough time for testing
            d. rapid change

141.  The effort taken to create a test plan should be (test planning process)
            a. half of the total test effort
            b. one-third of the total test efforts
            c. two times of the total test effort
            d. one-fifth of the total test effort

142.  What do you mean by “Having to say NO” (test planning process)
            a. No, the problem is not with testers
            b. No, the software is not ready for production
            c. Both a & b
            d. none of the above

143.  Tools like change Man, Clear case are used as (test planning process)
            a. functional automation tools
            b. performance testing tools
            c. configuration management tools
            d. none of the above.

144.  In Life cycle approach to testing, test execution occurs (Performing Test)
            a. during testing phase
            b. during requirement phase
            c. during coding phase
            d. none of the above.
145.  Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review? (Performing Test)
            a. Test manager
            b. Test engineer
            c. both A & B
            d. Project Manager

146.  What is NOT a test log? (Performing Test)
            a. Maps the test results to requirements
            b. Records test activities
            c. Maintains control over the test
            d. Contains pass or fail results.

147.  When Integration testing should begin (Performing Test)
            a. during black-box testing
            b. once unit testing is complete for the integrating components
            c. Before unit testing is complete
            d. All of the above

148.  Which is NOT a part of integration testing (Performing Test)
            a. Validation of the links between the clients and server
            b. Output interface file accuracy
            c. back-out situations
            d. none of the above.

149.  When to stop testing? (Performing Test)
            a. When all quality goals defined at the start of the project have been met.
            b. When running short of time
            c. When all test cases are executed
            d. all the above

150.  Authorization _________ (Performing Test)
            a. compliance testing
            b. disaster testing
            c. verifying compliance to rules
            d. functional testing
            e. ease of operations

151. File Integrity falls under (Performing Test)
            a. compliance testing
            b. disaster testing
            c. verifying compliance to rules
            d. functional testing
            e. ease of operations

152.  Operations testing is (Performing Test)
            a. compliance testing
            b. disaster testing
            c. verifying compliance to rules
            d. functional testing
            e. ease of operations

153.  Security falls under (Performing Test)
            a. compliance testing
            b. disaster testing
            c. verifying compliance to rules
            d. functional testing
            e. ease of operations

154.  Portability falls under (Performing Test)
            a. compliance testing
            b. disaster testing
            c. verifying compliance to rules
            d. functional testing
            e. ease of operations

155.  What are the four attributes to be present in any test problem? (Performing Test)
            a. statement, criteria, effect and cause
            b. priority, fix, schedule and report
            c. statement, fix effect and report
            d. none of the above.


156. Which is not the Phase of SDLC? (Tester’s Role SDLC)
a.       Initiation Phase
b.      Definition Phase
c.       Planning Phase
d.      Programming and Training Phase

157. Comparison of the expected benefit versus the cost of the solution is done in which phase of SDLC (Tester’s Role SDLC)
a)      Definition Phase
b)      Design Phase
c)      Initiation Phase
d)      Implementation Phase

158. Who is policy/oversight participant in SDLC? (Tester’s Role SDLC)
a.       Project Manager
b.      Contracting Officer
c.       Information Technology Manger
d.      Information Resources Management official

159. Who reviews proposed procurement for sufficiency in the acquisition and installation of the Off-the-Self Software? (Tester’s Role SDLC)
a.       Sponsor / User
b.      Project Manager
c.       IT Manger
d.      All of the Above

160. “V” testing process is (Tester’s Role SDLC)
a. System development process and system test process begins
b. Testing starts after coding is done
c. Do procedures are followed by Check procedures
d. Testing starts after the prototype is done

161. Validation is (Tester’s Role SDLC)
  1. Execute test
  2. Review code
  3. Desk check
  4. Audit

162. Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software Testing process (Tester’s Role SDLC)
a.       Assess development plan and status
b.      Develop the test plan
c.       Test software design
d.      Test software requirement


163. Structural testing is (Tester’s Role SDLC)
a.      Requirements are properly satisfied by the application
b.      Uncover errors during “Coding” of the program
c.       Functions works properly
d.      To test how the business requirements are implemented.

164.  Functional testing is (Tester’s Role SDLC)
a. Path testing
b. Technology has been used properly
c. Uncover errors that occurs in implementing requirements.
d. Uncover errors in program unit.

165. Structural testing is NOT (Tester’s Role SDLC)
a. Installation testing
b. Stress testing
c. Recovery testing
d. Compliance testing

166. Stress testing transaction can be obtained from (Tester’s Role SDLC)
a. Test data generators
b. Test transactions created by the test group
c. Transactions previously processed in the production environment
d. All of the above.

167. Who will assess vulnerability in the system (Tester’s Role SDLC)
a.      Internal Control Officer
b.      System Security Officer
c.       QA Engineer
d.      Test Manager

168. What is the structure testing process (Tester’s Role SDLC)
a. Parallel
b. Regression
c. Stress
d. Intersystem

169. What is Risk analysis? (Risk Analysis)
a. Evaluating risks
b. Evaluating Controls
c. Evaluating vulnerabilities
d. All of the above
170. Major component of Risk Analysis are (Risk Analysis)
a. The probability that the negative event will occur
b. The potential loss is very high
c. The potential loss or impact associated with the event.
d. A and C.

171. Method of conducting Risk Analysis is (Risk Analysis)
a. User your judgment
b. User your instinct
c. Cost of failure
d. All of the above

172. Which is not Testing Risk. (Risk Analysis)
a. Budget
b. Number of qualified test resources
c. Sequence and increments of code delivery
d. Inadequately tested applications

173. If abnormal termination type X occurs 100 times per year, and the loss per occurrence is $500, then the loss associated with the risk is $50,000.  What methods of measuring the magnitude of risk I am using? (Risk Analysis)
a. Judgment
b. Annual loss expectation estimation
c. Risk Formula
d. Consensus
174. What is Cascading error? (Risk Analysis)
a. Unrelated errors
b. Triggers a second unrelated error in another part
c. A functionality could not be tested
d. Two similar errors

175. Configuration defects will be introduced if (Risk Analysis)
a. Environment is not stable
b. Environment does not mirror test environment
c. Environment does not mirror production environment
d. All of the above


176. Quality Risk is (Risk Analysis)
a. Requirement comply with methodology
b. Incorrect result will be produced
c. Result of the system are unreliable
d. Complex technology used.

177. Risk control objectives are established in (Risk Analysis)
a. Design phase
b. Requirement Phase
c. Testing Phase
d. Implementation Phase

178. Which of the following is not Risk characteristic (Risk Analysis)
a. Inherent in every project
b. Neither intrinsically good not bad
c. Something to fear but not something to manage
d. Probability of loss


179. Application developed should fit user’s business process. The components of fit are (Acceptance Testing)
a. Data
b. People
c. Structure
d. All of the above
180. Which is not the responsibility of customer/ user of the software (Acceptance Testing)
a. Plan how and by whom each acceptance activity will be performed
b. Prepare the acceptance plan
c. Prepare resource plan
d. Plan resources for providing information on which to base acceptance decisions

181. In preparation for developing the acceptance criteria, the user should (Acceptance Testing)
a. Know the defects in the application
b. Acquire the basic knowledge of the application for which the system is intended
c. Understand the risks and benefits of the development methodology that is to be used in correcting the software system
d. Know new enhancement and basic understanding of how the application is implemented in users organization

182. Acceptance requirements that a system should meet is (Acceptance Testing)
a. Usability
b. Understandability
c. Functionality
d. Enhancements

183. Testing techniques that can be used in acceptance testing are (Acceptance Testing)
a. Structural
b. Functional
c. Usability
d. A and B
e.       B and C
184. For final software acceptance testing, the system should include (Acceptance Testing)
a. Delivered software
b. All user documents
c. Final version of other software deliverables
d. All of the above

185. Acceptance testing means (Acceptance Testing)
a. Testing performed on a single stand – alone module or unit of code
b. Testing after changes have been made to ensure that no unwanted changes were introduced
c. Testing to ensure that the system meets the needs of the organization and end user.
d. Users test the application in the developers environment

186. Acceptance tests are normally conducted by the (Acceptance Testing)
a. Developer
b. End users
c. Test team
d. Systems engineers



187. Which is not test result data (Status of Testing)
a. Test factors
b. Interface objective
c. Platform
d. Test estimation


188. What type of test that will be conducted during the execution of tests, which will be based on software requirements. What category of status data I am looking? (Status of Testing)

a. Test Result
b. Test Transaction
c. Defects
d. Efficiency
189. Summary (project)status report provides (Status of Testing)
a. General view of a project
b. General view of all the projects
c. Detailed view of all the projects
d. Detailed information about a project

190. Project status report provides (Status of Testing)
a. General view of a project
b. General view of all the projects
c. Detailed view of all the projects
d. Detailed information about a project
191. What is not the primary data given by the tester in test execution (Status of Testing)
a. Total number of tests
b. Number of test cases written for change request
c. Number of test executed to date
d. Number of tests executed successfully to date

192. Do the current project results meet the performance requirements? Which section of Project Status Report I should look for (Status of Testing)
a. Vital Project Information
b. General Project Information
c. Project Activities Information
d. Essential Elements Information

193. Which is a section of Summary status report (Status of Testing)
a. Vital project information
b. Essential elements information
c. Project activities information
d. Time Line information

194. Test Result data is (Status of Testing)
a. Test Transactions
b. Test events
c. Business Objectives
d. Reviews

195. What type of efficiency can be evaluated during testing? (Status of Testing)
a. Software system
b. Testing
c. Development
d. A and C
f.        A and B

196. Who is essentially responsible for the quality of a product?  (Quality)
a. Customer
b. QA Manager
c. Development Manager

197. What are the 3 costs that make up the Cost of Quality? (Quality)
a. Prevention, Appraisal, Failure
b. Appraisal, Development, Testing
c. Testing, Prevention, rework

198. What are expected production costs? (Quality)
a. labor, materials, and equipment
b. personnel, training, and rollout
c. training, testing, user-acceptance

199 Appraisal costs are: (Quality)
a. Costs associated with preventing errors
b. Costs associated with detection of errors
c. Costs associated with defective products delivered to customers


200. An example of a Failure Cost is: (Quality)
a. Training
b. Inspections
c. Rework
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